I commonly play grammar by ear (I never before bothered to formally examine the rules), so I don't understand why

"Thank you for inviting my family members and also I" and "Thank you for inviting me and also my family" both sound correct while

"Thank you for inviting I and my family" and also "Thank you for inviting my household and me" both sound incorrect.

You are watching: My family and i or my family and me

The I vs me dominance doesn't really help; "Thank you for inviting me" sounds correct "Thank you for inviting I" is obviously wrong.

Can anyone help through this?


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"Thank you for inviting my family members and me"

Two things are going on right here.

1> Almeans put yourself behind the various other person in a compound. So I, me, and so on constantly comes behind the other human being - you, them, they, my friends, my household, ... the list is endless -- in English, you don't count for as a lot as the people you're linking to through a conjunction.

The second difficulty is really simpler. Just think what you would certainly say if tbelow wasn't something (someone) else linked to it. Would you ever before say, "Thank you for inviting I"? If not, then don't use 'I' simply bereason they invited someone else as well.


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level 2
· 9 yr. ago

I've been using 'My frifinish and I' for the longest time, mostly because I was told that if you take the various other perchild out of the sentence it transforms the framework entirely since you shed a subject/noun and so on Can someone please clarify this?


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level 1
· 9 yr. ago
What you really must understand is that "I" is for as soon as you are doing the verb and "me" is for once someone is doing the verb to you. Due to the fact that the inviting is being done to you, it's gotta be "me."


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· 9 yr. ago

Well. What's happening is that the verb needs somepoint in the objective instance to come after it. ‘My family’ is the very same whether it's topic or object, and if you usage ‘my family members and also I’ as the object of a verb, because the family little comes initially it sort of ‘shields’ the I from sounding also starray. (It is still wrong, in typical created English, yet it's the type of thing you will certainly hear a lot in speech.) Whereas if ‘I’ comes instantly after the verb it's evident right ameans that it needs to be in the objective form ‘me’.


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level 2
· 9 yr. ago

This is what threw me off, thanks!


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· 9 yr. ago

If you pare the sentence dvery own to its essentials, the rules come to be clearer. As you listed, "thank you for inviting me" is correct because me is an object, not a topic. Therefore, "thank you for inviting my household, friends, poodle, pet fish and also me" is additionally correct.


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· 9 yr. earlier · edited 9 yr. ago

We are talking around the particular indirect situation develops of what is "my household and also I" and also "I and also my family" in the (unstressed) direct situation. "My family" doesn't readjust anymethod, but the indirect instance form of "I" is "me".

Now the question is what happens when we put the 2 together and we really desire the indirect case of the conjunction. Langueras differ in just how they manage this. English and the major European languages put both components in the indirect case before joining them. So the correct creates are " my household and me" and also " me and my family". This is all there is to say from an educated prescriptive point of view.

Nonetheless, so many type of aboriginal speakers of English agree through your initial intuitions, that we cannot claim that " my household and I" is completely wrong. What is even more, considerable numbers of world have actually been talking choose this for centuries. Clbeforehand tbelow is some different grammatical pattern at occupational.

I guess there are many kind of methods the phenomenon deserve to potentially be described. To obtain more indevelopment, it is best to relocation "my family" by something for which the direct object develop is not the same to the indirect object create. A good example is " him/he and also me/I" / " me/I and him/he", and also with that tbelow are some fascinating sensations. See http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=3469 for details and also for a conversation of possible explacountry.

My explanation 1, which is equivalent to some of those pointed out in the Language Log short article, claims that your grammatical dominion goes approximately as follows:

Direct object or indirect, stressed or unstressed, in English it's all the exact same (immutable) except for personal pronouns.

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When you join words with "and", the result is never before an individual pronoun, even once some of the constituents are personal pronouns. Therefore, even complex constructions entailing a pronoun are immutable. Either "my family and I" is correct regardmuch less of instance, or "my family and also me" is correct regardless of situation, or both are correct regardmuch less of instance. I.e., if one deserve to be supplied for X in "inviting X", then it have the right to be supplied in "X invited" and vice versa.

Now we have decoupled the case of "I"/"me" from the conmessage in which "my family and I/me" occurs, but we need to still pick in between "I" and also "me". A conventional alternative in any kind of Indo-European language would certainly be the straight object case, so "I". This is the obvious alternative if you have actually a bit of formal grammar education and learning. On the other hand, English likewise uses the instraight object instance, i.e. "me", as a stressed variant of the direct object situation. (E.g. in titles. Basically in the very same situations wright here French supplies "moi" instead of "je".) So that's likewise a perfectly good alternative. In general, "me" is even more idiomatic but is rejected by many pedants who ssuggest deny that English has actually stressed variants of pronouns and prescribe: "Who is that? - I!"

My explacountry additionally tells us why many type of indigenous speakers, particularly kids, say things prefer "Me and also my brother went fishing."

My alternate explacountry says that for some speakers, once a complex expression is in the indirect case, just the first constituent gets noted as instraight case and the remainder continues to be in direct situation. This predicts "invite him and she" as well as "invite her and also he" as 'correct'. If any aboriginal speaker really feels that these are correct (I doubt it), please soptimal up!

(This different explanation is not totally insane. E.g. in German, as soon as you put a string of adjectives in front of a noun that is in the dative instance, then only the first adjective -- or the post coming before it -- is in the dative case, and the others are in the nomiaboriginal situation. That's similar and also weirder.)