It is sassist that wave might have a unidevelop velocity. We could think of the time as soon as precisely the 1/3 th wavepulse has actually finimelted pasing via this point, and also 2/3th numbered wave pulse would certainly carry out this after twice the time elapsed, and so on.But it is worth noting that any kind of individual particle of the medium may oscillate up and dvery own, not via an uniform velocity(restoring force is proportional to displacement). Isn"t it contradictory, in the feeling that the as a whole wave should not have itself a unicreate velocity, fairly than an average?

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asked May 3 "16 at 17:49

Tony MarshleTony Marshle
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I think you are confusing the motion of the wave and the motion of the individual particles of the medium which transmits the wave. Of course the velocity of the wave is unidevelop while the velocity of the pwrite-ups varies throughout the cycle of oscillation. "The wave" itself is watched in the progression eg of a optimal through the medium, from one particle to another. (Possibly I saying the very same as honeste_vivere !)

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answered May 3 "16 at 19:07

sammy gerbilsammy gerbil
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For a wave having the equation

y=A sin(wt-kx)the velocity of the wave is offered by

v=fλ.Due to the fact that w=2πf and also k=2π/λ,

v=w/k.

You are watching: Difference between particle velocity and wave velocity

The ppost velocity at any kind of immediate is derived by partly separating the wave equation wrt time to give

∂y/∂t=Awcos(wt-kx).

So the velocity of the pwrite-up is not unicreate (varies through t and x),but the velocity of the wave is itself constant (as frequency and also wavelength are fixed). The wave velocity is an average of the movements of the individual pshort articles of the medium.What we observe as mass is different from an individual motion.

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edited Feb 23 "18 at 17:12
answered Feb 23 "18 at 16:10

piggypiggy
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